In UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021, 72/100 questions came from IAS4Sure MCQ Factory & IAS4Sure Current notes.
60 questions could be answered completely from above 2 sources while 12 questions could be answered partially and using elimination technique after that.
For your reference, we have provided screenshot from IAS4Sure MCQ Factory and links of IAS4Sure Notes for all 72 Qs of UPSC Prelims 2021.
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Q.1) The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks
b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
c) Increase in the banking habit of the people
d) Increase in the population of the country
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.2) India Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following?
1.Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
2.Actions of the Reserve Bank of India.
3.Inflation and short-term interest rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.3) Consider the following statements:
1.The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2.Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3.The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes:
Q.4) In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following?
1)Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources.
2)Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis.
3)Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 Only
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.5) With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements:
- They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
- They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
- They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q. 6) In the first quarter of seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located?
- Broach
- Chicacole
- Trichinopoly
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 Only
d) 2 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.7) With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1.Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.
2.The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3.The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 Only
d) 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.8) Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.
c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.9) Consider the following statements:
The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily
1)improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets
2)increases the foreign value of domestic currency
3)improves the trade balance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 Only
d) 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.10) Consider the following
1)Foreign Currency convertible bonds
2)Foreign Institutional investment with certain conditions
3)Global depository receipts
4)Non-resident external deposits
Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 Only
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.11) With reference to Indian economy, demand pull-inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?
- Expansionary policies
- Fiscal stimulus
- Inflation-indexing wages
- Higher – purchasing power
- Rising interest rates
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
b) 3, 4 and 5 Only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Source from IAS4Sure Notes
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.12) Consider the following:
1.Bacteria
2.Fungi
3.Virus
Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.13) Consider the following statements:
1.Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2.Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.14) With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:
1.All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2.All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3.The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.15) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.16) Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
a) Repayment of Public debt
b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.17) Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of
a) clonal propagation of crop plants
b) developing genetically modified crop plants
c) production of plant growth substances
d) production of biofertilizers
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Q.18) How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
1)Permaculture Farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
2)Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3)Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4)Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)1 and 3
b)1, 2 and 4
c)4 Only
d)2 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.19) With reference to ’palm oil’, consider the following statements:
1.The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2.The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3.The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.20) Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?
a) Sugarcane
b) Sunflower
c) Pearl Millet
d) Red gram
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.21) The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?
1)Burrowing animals and termites
2)Fire
3)Grazing herbivores
4)Seasonal rainfall
5)Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 4 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 5
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.22) “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees”. This is the most likely description of
a) coniferous forest
b) dry deciduous forest
c) mangrove forest
d) tropical rain forest
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.23) Consider the following kinds of organisms:
- Copepods
- Cyanobacteria
- Diatoms
- Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.24) In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1.Fern
2.Litchen
3.Moss
4.Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 4 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.25) Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
b)Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.26) With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
1)The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2)The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.27) Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1.They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
2.The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3.They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.28) With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:
1)It is a product of oil refineries.
2)Some industries use it to generate power.
3)Its use causes sulphur emissions into Environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes
Q.29) What is blue carbon?
a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas.
d) Carbon present in atmosphere
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Q.30) Consider the following animals:
1.Hedgehog
2.Marmot
3.Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d)1 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Q.31) In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus Cycle
d) Sulphur Cycle
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.32) Which of the following are detritivores?
1)Earthworms
2)Jellyfish
3)Millipedes
4)Seahorses
5)Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)1, 2 and 4 Only
b)2, 3, 4 and 5 Only
c)1, 3 and 5 Only
d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.33) Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
1.Cnidarians
2.Fungi
3.Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure notes
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.34) With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
a)Chenab
b)Jhelum
c)Ravi
d)Sutlej
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.35) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of
a)brown forest soil
b)fissure volcanic rock
c)granite and schist
d)shale and limestone
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.36) With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of
a) Galciers
b) Mangrove areas
c) Ramsar sites
d) Saline lakes
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.37) Consider the following rivers:
1.Brahamani
2.Nagalwali
3.Subarnarekha
4.Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.38) Consider the following statements:
1)The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2)India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3)‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.39) Consider the following statements:
1.In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2.In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.40) ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
a)environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
b)ecological management of ‘wetlands of International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention
c)sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
d)‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.41) With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.
2.The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijaynagara Empire.
3.Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 Only
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.42) Consider the following statements:
1.21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2.The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.43) Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?
a) Dholavira
b) Kalibangan
c) Rakhigarhi
d) Ropar
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.44) Consider the following pairs:
(Historical Place) (Well-konwn for)
1.Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines
2.Chandra-Ketugarh : Terracotta art
3.Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.45) Consider the following statements:
1.The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age 21.
2.The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.46) With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
b) The Viceroy’s Executive council was expanded to include more Indians.
c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second world War was over.
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.47) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?
a) Annie Besant
b) Debendranath Tagore
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d) Sarojini Naidu
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.48) In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as
a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
b) members of the Interim Government in 1946
c) members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
d) officers of the Indian National Army
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.49) With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous
a) Jain monks
b) playwrights
c) temple architects
d) philosophers
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.50) With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?
a) Paragana- Sarkar- Suba
b) Sarkar-Paragana-Suba
c) Suba-Sarkar-Paragana
d)Paragana-Suba-Sarkar
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.51) In reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2.In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property.
3.The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 Only
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.52) Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.53) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1.Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2.A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.54) With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1)There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2)A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3)A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.55) Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
a) A committed judiciary
b) Centralization of powers
c) Elected government
d) Separation of powers
Source from IAS4Sure Notes
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.56) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
1.As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2.In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.57) ‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
a) Article 15
b) Article 19
c ) Article 21
d) Article 29
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.58) Consider the following statements:
1.In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2.In 1991, Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies
3.As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Q.59) Constitutional government means
a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
d) a government limited by the terms of the constitution
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.60) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
a) Article 14
b) Article 28
c) Article 32
d) Article 44
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.61) What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
a) A Democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.62) Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
a)The Right to Equality
b)The Directive Principles of State Policy
c)The Right to Freedom
d)The Concept of Welfare
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.63) What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
a) Legal right available to citizens only
b) Legal right available to any person
c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.64) The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for
a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.65) With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1.When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2.State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Q.66) At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
1.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
3.Ministry of Rural Development
4.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.67) The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of
a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
b) development of India’s own satellite navigation system
c) radio collar for wildlife tracking
d) spread of viral diseases
Source from IAS4Sure Notes
Q.68) Triclosan considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?
a) Food preservatives
b) Fruit-ripening substances
c) Reused plastic containers
d) Toiletries
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.69) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
a) Distances among stellar bodies do not change.
b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
c) Light always travels in a straight line.
d) Speed of light is always same.
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.70) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:
1.Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2.Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.71) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:
1.Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
2.A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source from IAS4Sure Notes Link
Source from MCQ Factory
Q.72) Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because
a) it is dipolar in nature
b) it is a good conductor of heat
c) it has high value of specific heat
d) it is an oxide of hydrogen
Source from MCQ Factory
